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September 24, 2016

Medical Microbiology MCQ's for Staff Nurse and Medical Exam [Objective]

1. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Clostridum tetani
b. Clostridum Welchi
c. Diptheria
d. Clostridium botulinum


2. Koplic’s spots will develop in
a. HIV
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Rubella


3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
a. 5’-HMC
b. 5’-HMA
c. 5’-CHM
d. 5’MHC


4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
a. pertusis
b. mumps
c. cholera
d. rabies


5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
a. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
b. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
d. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.


6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
a. They have 30 S ribosomes
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have 70 S ribosomes
d. None of the above


7. AIDS is caused by
a. Retrovirus
b. Prion
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Retroprison


8. Penicillin is a
a. Primary metabolite
b. Secondary metabolite
c. Tertiary metabolite
d. None of the above


9. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____ Hypersensitivity.
a. Immediate
b. Delayed
c. Allergy
d. None of these


10. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
a. Food borne
b. Water borne
c. Milk borne
d. Air borne


11. Pus-forming forms are called as
a. Pyoderm
b. Pyogenic
c. Pyrogen
d. None of the above


12. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
a. Acridine orange
b. Alkaline phosphate
c. Neutral red
d. Bromothymol blue


13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
a. Apitososis
b. Agamma globulinemia
c. Gammaglobulinemma
d. Sickle-cell anemia.


14. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is
a. Genetic Engineering
b. Genetic counseling
c. Genetic drift
d. Genetic equilibrium


15. Viral antigens are likely
a. Proteins
b. Glyco proteins
c. Lipo proteins
d. Both a and b


16. The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
a. Enzymatic assay
b. Turbidometric assay
c. End point determination assay
d. Metabolic assay


17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
a. Janudice
b. AIDS
c. Cancer
d. Diabetis


18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
a. 45 – 80 days
b. 15 – 35 days
c. 35 – 50 days
d. 5 – 15 days


19. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
a. Bacitracin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Novobiocin
d. Tetracycline


20. Kinetosomes are observed in
a. Algae
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Viruses


21. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chromphenical


22. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
a. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Both a and b


23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphoterein B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin


24. Botulism means
a. Food adultration
b. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
c. Chemical contamination of food
d. Food processing


25. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces venezuelae
c. Streptomyces pyrogenes
d. None of these


26. Streptomycin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Straphylococcus aureus
d. None of these


27. The treatment required for small bodies of water is
a. Disinfection
b. Filtration
c. Purification
d. All of these


28. Surface ropiness is caused by
a. Alkaligenes viscolactis
b. Streptococcus
c. both a and b
d. None of these


29. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood


30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these


31. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
a. Cellwall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Folate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase


32. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Spirochaete
d. Virus


33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
a. Staph. albus
b. Staph. aureus
c. Strep. viridana
d. None of these


34. Black water fever is caused by
a. P. vivax
b. P. falciparum
c. P. ovale
d. None of these


35. Mantoux test detects
a. M. tuberculosis
b. Cynaobacteria
c. Clostridia
d. Both a and b


36. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Bactracin
b. Penicillin
c. Cyclosporine
d. All of these


37. Aflatoxin is produced by
a. Aspergillus sps
b. Penicillium sps
c. Alternaria sps
d. None of these


38. Penicillin is discovered by
a. Fleming
b. Pasteur
c. Koch
d. None of these


39. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
a. Synergism
b. Antaginism
c. both
d. None of these


40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
a. Histamine
b. Corticosteroid
c. Epinephrine
d. None of these


41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Erythromycin
c. a and b
d. Penicillins


42. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
a. Bacteriophages
b. Mycoplasma phages
c. Virions
d. Tiny strains


43. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
a. Unicellular organisms
b. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
c. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
d. It causes hemolysis in human beings
e. Gram negative plemorphic rods


44. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a. R.Quintana
b. R.rickettsii
c. R.orinetalis
d. R.prowazekii


45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
a. Copthalmia
b. C.trachomatis
c. C.pneumonias
d. C.psittasi


46. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
a. Frei test
b. Mantoux test
c. Schick test
d. Dick test


47. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
a. Cephaloeuros
b. Ulothrix
c. Macrocystis
d. Prototheca


48. Erythromycin is obtained from
a. S.griseus
b. S.rimosus
c. S.scabies
d. S.erythraeus


49. Common cold is caused by
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Hepatitis virus
d. Pox virus


50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Paramyxo virus
d. None of these


51. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
a. Tetracyclines
b. Penicillins
c. Streptomycines
d. None of these


52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
a. Undulent fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Enteric fever


53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of these


54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
a. Liver
b. Gall bladder
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine


55. True about Enteric fever is
a. Bacteraemia in first week
b. Carrier in 90%
c. All serotypes cause the disease
d. Rosy spots on 18th day


56. Gastroenteritis is caused by
a. Shigella
b. V.cholerae
c. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
d. S.typhi


57. E.coli produces the following toxins:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Endotoxins
c. Verocytotoxins
d. Hemolysins


58. The following infections caused by Esch. Coli, except
a. Urinary tract infections
b. Septic infections of wounds
c. Diarrhoea
d. Dysentery
e. Meningitis


59. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. C. Bovis
c. C. Jeikeium
d. C. equi


60. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Lois Pasteur
c. Klebs and Loeffler
d. Volhard and Fahr


61. Coryne bacterium is
a. Gram positive
b. Resistant to Penicillin
c. Gram negative
d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol


62. C. diphtheriae consists of
a. Startch granules
b. Polymeta phosphate granules
c. Lipid granules
d. None of these


63. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
a. Upto 2 weeks
b. Upto 1 week
c. 2–4 weeks
d. None of these


64. Diphtheria virulence test is
a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
b. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
c. C.R.P test
d. M.R.T. test


65. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
a. Aldehyde
b. Formalin
c. Phenols
d. None of these


66. Diphtheria is an example of
a. Bacteraemia
b. Pyaemia
c. Septicemia
d. Toxaemia


67. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
a. Tubercle formation
b. Liquid formation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these


68. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
a. Brucellosis
b. Diphtheria
c. Botulism
d. Tuberculosis


69. Dose of BCG vaccine is
a. 0.2–0.5 ml
b. 0.1 ml
c. 0.05 ml
d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml


70. Negative Mantoux test is important in
a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Carcinoma bronchus
d. Lymphoma


71. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
a. Human tubercle bacilli
b. Avian tubercle bacilli
c. Bovine tubercle bacilli
d. A typical mycobacteria


72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these


73. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
a. Large sized tuberculomas
b. Miliary tuberculosis
c. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
d. Tuberculous cavity of the lung


74. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
a. Tuberculoid Leprosy
b. Borderline tuberculoid
c. Borderline lepramatous
d. Lepronmetous leprosy


75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Erysipeals
c. Boil
d. Paronchia


76. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus viridans
c. Stre. pyogens
d. None of these


77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
a. Str. viridans
b. Str. pyogenes
c. Stph. aures
d. None of these


78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
a. Scarlet fever
b. Whooping cough
c. Brucellosis
d. Cholera


79. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
a. Septicaemia
b. Paronychia
c. Pneumomnia
d. None of these


80. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
a. Capsular polysaccharide
b. Specific soluble substance
c. Vi-antigen
d. Forsmann antigen


81. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
a. Streptococcus
b. Pneumococcus
c. Meningococci
d. None of these


82. Influenza is belonging to
a. Orthomyxoviridae
b. Retroviridae
c. Both a and b
d. None of these


83. Influenza virus contains
a. Eight segments of RNA
b. Two strands of RNA
c. Single RNA
d. None of these


84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
a. St.pneumoniae
b. St.pyogenes
c. Influenza
d. None of these


85. Geraman measles is also known as
a. Rubella / 2-day measles
b. Rubella / 3day measles
c. Rubella / 4-day measles
d. Rubella / 1-day measles


86. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
a. Congential rubella
b. Post natal rubella
c. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
d. Both a and c


87. Mumps virus is belonging go
a. Retroviriae
b. Paramyxoviriae
c. Orthomyxo viridae
d. None of these


88. Measles is characterized by
a. Negribodies
b. Babes-Ernest granules
c. Koplik’s spots
d. Fever


89. Brucella causes
a. Pertusis
b. Plague
c. Brucellosis
d. None of these


90. Mediterranian fever is caused by
a. M. tuberculosis
b. S. typhi
c. C.neoformans
d. Brucella


91. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
a. Frei
b. Weil
c. Castaneda strip
d. Rose water


92. Malignant pustule is caused by
a. Anthrax
b. Tetanus
c. Diphtheria
d. None of these


93. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
a. Alimentary
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Hepatic


94. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
a. Sheep
b. Cattle
c. Goats
d. All of these


95. Virus causing Rabies is
a. Orthromyxo virus
b. Paramyxo virus
c. Rhbdo virus
d. Toga viruses


96. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
a. Rhabdo viridae
b. Toga viridae
c. Paramyxo viridae
d. None of these


97. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
a. Street virus
b. Fixed virus
c. Both a and b
d. None of these


98. Rabies virus can multiply in
a. The central nervous system only
b. The peripheral nerves
c. Muscle tissues
d. All the above


99. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
a. Chick embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Semple vaccine
d. BPL vaccine


100. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
a. Duck embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Sheep brain vaccine
d. BPL vaccine


101. The causative agent of tetanus is
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Cl. tetani
c. Cl. welchii
d. Cl. perfringens


102. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
a. Via lymphaties
b. Arterial blood
c. Cranial nerves
d. None of these


103. Tetanus is caused by spread of
a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
b. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system


104. The first symptom of tetanus is
a. Lock jaw
b. Trismus
c. Anorexia
d. Dyspagia


105. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
a. Cl. tetani
b. Cl. welchii
c. Cl. botulism
d. Cl. septicum


106. Toxin produced by C. botulism is
a. Botulin
b. Tetanospasmin
c. Tetanolysin
d. Cholaragen


107. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyoge
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Candida


108. Causative agent of syphilis
a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. carateum
d. T. endemicum


109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicols
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracyclins


110. Specific test for syphilis is
a. VDRL test
b. ELISA
c. FTA
d. None of these


111. VDRL test is a
a. Agglutination test
b. Slide flocculation test
c. Precipitation test
d. None of these


112. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
a. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
b. Non-motile diplococci
c. Oxidase positive organisms
d. Air borne infection


113. Gonorrhoea is
a. Air borne disease
b. Water borne disease
c. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
d. Both a and c


114. Bartholin cyst is caused by
a. Candida
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Gonococcus


115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
a. Urethritis
b. Conjuctivitis
c. Arthritis
d. All of the above


116. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
a. Pili
b. Cell membrane
c. Its cellular location
d. Cyclic enzymes


117. Japanese encephalitis is caused by
a. Toga Viruses
b. Arbo Viruses
c. Para myxo Viruses
d. Ortho myxo Viruses


118. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the
a. Culex tritaeriorhynchus
b. Culex annulirostris
c. Culex vishnui
d. None of these


119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
a. Sand fly
b. Ticks
c. Aedes aegypti
d. Culex


120. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Bunya virus
b. Calci virus
c. Arbo virus
d. None of these


121. Vector for leishmaniasis is
a. Tick
b. Mite
c. Sand fly
d. Tsetse fly


122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
a. Kala-agar
b. Typhoid
c. Malaria
d. All of these


123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Adrenal gland
d. Bone marrow


124. In India, malaria most often spreads by
a. Anophels cucifacies
b. Anopheles fluvatis
c. Anopheles stephensi
d. Anopheles minimus


125. Man is intermediate host for
a. Guinea Worm
b. Filaria
c. Malaria
d. Kala-azar


126. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
a. P. ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P.malaria


127. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?
a. P.ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P. malariae


128. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
a. Ring stage
b. Schizont
c. Gametocyte
d. None of these


129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
a. Induces antibodies
b. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
c. No effects on clinical illness
d. None of the above


130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due to
a. P. falciparum
b. P.vivax
c. P.ovale
d. P. malaria


131. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
a. Plasmodium
b. Gametocytes
c. Type of parasite
d. Schizont


132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half
a. Gametocyte
b. Exo-erythrocytic phase
c. Erythrocytic phase
d. All of these


133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Lymphatic leukemia
c. Malaise & Anorexia
d. Both a and b


134. Most important Penicillium toxins are
a. Citrinin
b. Patulin
c. Penicillic acid
d. All of the above


135. Penicillic acid is produced by
a. A. ochraceus
b. P. puberulum
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above


136. Fungi producting mycelium are called
a. Moulds
b. Filamentous fungi
c. Both a and b
d. Yeasts


137. Candidiasis is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus spp.
c. E. floccosum
d. M. audouinii


138. Candida albicans is capable to form
a. Single cells
b. Pseudomonas
c. Multicellular forms
d. None of these


139. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. A. niger
b. A. fumigatus
c. A. flavus
d. A. oryzae


140. A.fumigates can produce
a. Endotoxins
b. Exotoxins
c. Enterotoxins
d. None of these


141. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphotericin B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin


142. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
a. P. commune
b. P. bicolor
c. P. glaucum
d. P.notatum


143. Tinea versicolor is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Aspergillus niger
d. None of these


144. Causative agent of Tinea nigra
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Exophiala werenekii
c. Candida albicans
d. Aspergillus flavus


145. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Histoplasma duboissi
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Aspergillus flavus


146. Sun ray fungus is
a. Actinomyces irraeli
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Streptomyces griseus
d. Cryptococcosis


147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. Antibiotic
d. Antiseptic


148. Griseofluvin is obtained from
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Penicillium griseofluvin
d. None of these


149. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chloramphenicol


150. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
a. Novobiocin
b. Nystatin
c. Chloromycetin
d. Colicins

Medical Microbiology MCQ's for Staff Nurse and Medical Exam [Objective] Reviewed by Rohit Ranjan on Saturday, September 24, 2016 Rating: 5 1. Food poisoning is caused by a. Clostridum tetani b. Clostridum Welchi c. Diptheria d. Clostridium botulinum 2. Koplic’s spots...
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