September 24, 2016

Medical Microbiology MCQ's for Staff Nurse and Medical Exam [Objective]

1. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Clostridum tetani
b. Clostridum Welchi
c. Diptheria
d. Clostridium botulinum

2. Koplic’s spots will develop in
a. HIV
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Rubella

3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
a. 5’-HMC
b. 5’-HMA
c. 5’-CHM
d. 5’MHC

4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
a. pertusis
b. mumps
c. cholera
d. rabies

5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
a. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
b. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
d. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.

6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
a. They have 30 S ribosomes
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have 70 S ribosomes
d. None of the above

7. AIDS is caused by
a. Retrovirus
b. Prion
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Retroprison

8. Penicillin is a
a. Primary metabolite
b. Secondary metabolite
c. Tertiary metabolite
d. None of the above

9. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____ Hypersensitivity.
a. Immediate
b. Delayed
c. Allergy
d. None of these

10. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
a. Food borne
b. Water borne
c. Milk borne
d. Air borne

11. Pus-forming forms are called as
a. Pyoderm
b. Pyogenic
c. Pyrogen
d. None of the above

12. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
a. Acridine orange
b. Alkaline phosphate
c. Neutral red
d. Bromothymol blue

13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
a. Apitososis
b. Agamma globulinemia
c. Gammaglobulinemma
d. Sickle-cell anemia.

14. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is
a. Genetic Engineering
b. Genetic counseling
c. Genetic drift
d. Genetic equilibrium

15. Viral antigens are likely
a. Proteins
b. Glyco proteins
c. Lipo proteins
d. Both a and b

16. The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
a. Enzymatic assay
b. Turbidometric assay
c. End point determination assay
d. Metabolic assay

17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
a. Janudice
c. Cancer
d. Diabetis

18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
a. 45 – 80 days
b. 15 – 35 days
c. 35 – 50 days
d. 5 – 15 days

19. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
a. Bacitracin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Novobiocin
d. Tetracycline

20. Kinetosomes are observed in
a. Algae
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Viruses

21. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chromphenical

22. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
a. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Both a and b

23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphoterein B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin

24. Botulism means
a. Food adultration
b. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
c. Chemical contamination of food
d. Food processing

25. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces venezuelae
c. Streptomyces pyrogenes
d. None of these

26. Streptomycin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Straphylococcus aureus
d. None of these

27. The treatment required for small bodies of water is
a. Disinfection
b. Filtration
c. Purification
d. All of these

28. Surface ropiness is caused by
a. Alkaligenes viscolactis
b. Streptococcus
c. both a and b
d. None of these

29. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood

30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these

31. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
a. Cellwall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Folate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase

32. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Spirochaete
d. Virus

33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
a. Staph. albus
b. Staph. aureus
c. Strep. viridana
d. None of these

34. Black water fever is caused by
a. P. vivax
b. P. falciparum
c. P. ovale
d. None of these

35. Mantoux test detects
a. M. tuberculosis
b. Cynaobacteria
c. Clostridia
d. Both a and b

36. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Bactracin
b. Penicillin
c. Cyclosporine
d. All of these

37. Aflatoxin is produced by
a. Aspergillus sps
b. Penicillium sps
c. Alternaria sps
d. None of these

38. Penicillin is discovered by
a. Fleming
b. Pasteur
c. Koch
d. None of these

39. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
a. Synergism
b. Antaginism
c. both
d. None of these

40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
a. Histamine
b. Corticosteroid
c. Epinephrine
d. None of these

41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Erythromycin
c. a and b
d. Penicillins

42. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
a. Bacteriophages
b. Mycoplasma phages
c. Virions
d. Tiny strains

43. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
a. Unicellular organisms
b. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
c. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
d. It causes hemolysis in human beings
e. Gram negative plemorphic rods

44. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a. R.Quintana
b. R.rickettsii
c. R.orinetalis
d. R.prowazekii

45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
a. Copthalmia
b. C.trachomatis
c. C.pneumonias
d. C.psittasi

46. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
a. Frei test
b. Mantoux test
c. Schick test
d. Dick test

47. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
a. Cephaloeuros
b. Ulothrix
c. Macrocystis
d. Prototheca

48. Erythromycin is obtained from
a. S.griseus
b. S.rimosus
c. S.scabies
d. S.erythraeus

49. Common cold is caused by
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Hepatitis virus
d. Pox virus

50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Paramyxo virus
d. None of these

51. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
a. Tetracyclines
b. Penicillins
c. Streptomycines
d. None of these

52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
a. Undulent fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Enteric fever

53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of these

54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
a. Liver
b. Gall bladder
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine

55. True about Enteric fever is
a. Bacteraemia in first week
b. Carrier in 90%
c. All serotypes cause the disease
d. Rosy spots on 18th day

56. Gastroenteritis is caused by
a. Shigella
b. V.cholerae
c. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
d. S.typhi

57. E.coli produces the following toxins:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Endotoxins
c. Verocytotoxins
d. Hemolysins

58. The following infections caused by Esch. Coli, except
a. Urinary tract infections
b. Septic infections of wounds
c. Diarrhoea
d. Dysentery
e. Meningitis

59. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. C. Bovis
c. C. Jeikeium
d. C. equi

60. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Lois Pasteur
c. Klebs and Loeffler
d. Volhard and Fahr

61. Coryne bacterium is
a. Gram positive
b. Resistant to Penicillin
c. Gram negative
d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol

62. C. diphtheriae consists of
a. Startch granules
b. Polymeta phosphate granules
c. Lipid granules
d. None of these

63. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
a. Upto 2 weeks
b. Upto 1 week
c. 2–4 weeks
d. None of these

64. Diphtheria virulence test is
a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
b. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
c. C.R.P test
d. M.R.T. test

65. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
a. Aldehyde
b. Formalin
c. Phenols
d. None of these

66. Diphtheria is an example of
a. Bacteraemia
b. Pyaemia
c. Septicemia
d. Toxaemia

67. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
a. Tubercle formation
b. Liquid formation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

68. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
a. Brucellosis
b. Diphtheria
c. Botulism
d. Tuberculosis

69. Dose of BCG vaccine is
a. 0.2–0.5 ml
b. 0.1 ml
c. 0.05 ml
d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml

70. Negative Mantoux test is important in
a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Carcinoma bronchus
d. Lymphoma

71. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
a. Human tubercle bacilli
b. Avian tubercle bacilli
c. Bovine tubercle bacilli
d. A typical mycobacteria

72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

73. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
a. Large sized tuberculomas
b. Miliary tuberculosis
c. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
d. Tuberculous cavity of the lung

74. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
a. Tuberculoid Leprosy
b. Borderline tuberculoid
c. Borderline lepramatous
d. Lepronmetous leprosy

75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Erysipeals
c. Boil
d. Paronchia

76. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus viridans
c. Stre. pyogens
d. None of these

77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
a. Str. viridans
b. Str. pyogenes
c. Stph. aures
d. None of these

78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
a. Scarlet fever
b. Whooping cough
c. Brucellosis
d. Cholera

79. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
a. Septicaemia
b. Paronychia
c. Pneumomnia
d. None of these

80. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
a. Capsular polysaccharide
b. Specific soluble substance
c. Vi-antigen
d. Forsmann antigen

81. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
a. Streptococcus
b. Pneumococcus
c. Meningococci
d. None of these

82. Influenza is belonging to
a. Orthomyxoviridae
b. Retroviridae
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

83. Influenza virus contains
a. Eight segments of RNA
b. Two strands of RNA
c. Single RNA
d. None of these

84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
a. St.pneumoniae
b. St.pyogenes
c. Influenza
d. None of these

85. Geraman measles is also known as
a. Rubella / 2-day measles
b. Rubella / 3day measles
c. Rubella / 4-day measles
d. Rubella / 1-day measles

86. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
a. Congential rubella
b. Post natal rubella
c. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
d. Both a and c

87. Mumps virus is belonging go
a. Retroviriae
b. Paramyxoviriae
c. Orthomyxo viridae
d. None of these

88. Measles is characterized by
a. Negribodies
b. Babes-Ernest granules
c. Koplik’s spots
d. Fever

89. Brucella causes
a. Pertusis
b. Plague
c. Brucellosis
d. None of these

90. Mediterranian fever is caused by
a. M. tuberculosis
b. S. typhi
c. C.neoformans
d. Brucella

91. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
a. Frei
b. Weil
c. Castaneda strip
d. Rose water

92. Malignant pustule is caused by
a. Anthrax
b. Tetanus
c. Diphtheria
d. None of these

93. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
a. Alimentary
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Hepatic

94. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
a. Sheep
b. Cattle
c. Goats
d. All of these

95. Virus causing Rabies is
a. Orthromyxo virus
b. Paramyxo virus
c. Rhbdo virus
d. Toga viruses

96. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
a. Rhabdo viridae
b. Toga viridae
c. Paramyxo viridae
d. None of these

97. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
a. Street virus
b. Fixed virus
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

98. Rabies virus can multiply in
a. The central nervous system only
b. The peripheral nerves
c. Muscle tissues
d. All the above

99. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
a. Chick embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Semple vaccine
d. BPL vaccine

100. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
a. Duck embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Sheep brain vaccine
d. BPL vaccine

101. The causative agent of tetanus is
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Cl. tetani
c. Cl. welchii
d. Cl. perfringens

102. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
a. Via lymphaties
b. Arterial blood
c. Cranial nerves
d. None of these

103. Tetanus is caused by spread of
a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
b. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system

104. The first symptom of tetanus is
a. Lock jaw
b. Trismus
c. Anorexia
d. Dyspagia

105. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
a. Cl. tetani
b. Cl. welchii
c. Cl. botulism
d. Cl. septicum

106. Toxin produced by C. botulism is
a. Botulin
b. Tetanospasmin
c. Tetanolysin
d. Cholaragen

107. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyoge
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Candida

108. Causative agent of syphilis
a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. carateum
d. T. endemicum

109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicols
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracyclins

110. Specific test for syphilis is
a. VDRL test
c. FTA
d. None of these

111. VDRL test is a
a. Agglutination test
b. Slide flocculation test
c. Precipitation test
d. None of these

112. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
a. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
b. Non-motile diplococci
c. Oxidase positive organisms
d. Air borne infection

113. Gonorrhoea is
a. Air borne disease
b. Water borne disease
c. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
d. Both a and c

114. Bartholin cyst is caused by
a. Candida
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Gonococcus

115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
a. Urethritis
b. Conjuctivitis
c. Arthritis
d. All of the above

116. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
a. Pili
b. Cell membrane
c. Its cellular location
d. Cyclic enzymes

117. Japanese encephalitis is caused by
a. Toga Viruses
b. Arbo Viruses
c. Para myxo Viruses
d. Ortho myxo Viruses

118. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the
a. Culex tritaeriorhynchus
b. Culex annulirostris
c. Culex vishnui
d. None of these

119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
a. Sand fly
b. Ticks
c. Aedes aegypti
d. Culex

120. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Bunya virus
b. Calci virus
c. Arbo virus
d. None of these

121. Vector for leishmaniasis is
a. Tick
b. Mite
c. Sand fly
d. Tsetse fly

122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
a. Kala-agar
b. Typhoid
c. Malaria
d. All of these

123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Adrenal gland
d. Bone marrow

124. In India, malaria most often spreads by
a. Anophels cucifacies
b. Anopheles fluvatis
c. Anopheles stephensi
d. Anopheles minimus

125. Man is intermediate host for
a. Guinea Worm
b. Filaria
c. Malaria
d. Kala-azar

126. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
a. P. ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P.malaria

127. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?
a. P.ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P. malariae

128. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
a. Ring stage
b. Schizont
c. Gametocyte
d. None of these

129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
a. Induces antibodies
b. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
c. No effects on clinical illness
d. None of the above

130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due to
a. P. falciparum
b. P.vivax
c. P.ovale
d. P. malaria

131. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
a. Plasmodium
b. Gametocytes
c. Type of parasite
d. Schizont

132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half
a. Gametocyte
b. Exo-erythrocytic phase
c. Erythrocytic phase
d. All of these

133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Lymphatic leukemia
c. Malaise & Anorexia
d. Both a and b

134. Most important Penicillium toxins are
a. Citrinin
b. Patulin
c. Penicillic acid
d. All of the above

135. Penicillic acid is produced by
a. A. ochraceus
b. P. puberulum
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

136. Fungi producting mycelium are called
a. Moulds
b. Filamentous fungi
c. Both a and b
d. Yeasts

137. Candidiasis is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus spp.
c. E. floccosum
d. M. audouinii

138. Candida albicans is capable to form
a. Single cells
b. Pseudomonas
c. Multicellular forms
d. None of these

139. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. A. niger
b. A. fumigatus
c. A. flavus
d. A. oryzae

140. A.fumigates can produce
a. Endotoxins
b. Exotoxins
c. Enterotoxins
d. None of these

141. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphotericin B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin

142. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
a. P. commune
b. P. bicolor
c. P. glaucum
d. P.notatum

143. Tinea versicolor is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Aspergillus niger
d. None of these

144. Causative agent of Tinea nigra
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Exophiala werenekii
c. Candida albicans
d. Aspergillus flavus

145. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Histoplasma duboissi
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Aspergillus flavus

146. Sun ray fungus is
a. Actinomyces irraeli
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Streptomyces griseus
d. Cryptococcosis

147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. Antibiotic
d. Antiseptic

148. Griseofluvin is obtained from
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Penicillium griseofluvin
d. None of these

149. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chloramphenicol

150. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
a. Novobiocin
b. Nystatin
c. Chloromycetin
d. Colicins

Medical Microbiology MCQ's for Staff Nurse and Medical Exam [Objective] Reviewed by Rohit Ranjan on Saturday, September 24, 2016 Rating: 5 1. Food poisoning is caused by a. Clostridum tetani b. Clostridum Welchi c. Diptheria d. Clostridium botulinum 2. Koplic’s spots...

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