Monday, 10 October 2016

72 Religious Teachers JCO Recruitment in Indian Army- Last Date 08/11/2016

72 Religious Teachers JCO Recruitment in Indian Army- Last Date 08/11/2016
Indian Army invites applications from eligible male candidates for recruitment of Religious Teachers in Indian Army as Junior Commissioned Officer (JCO) for RRT 83 & 84 courses. The interested candidates can apply online from 10th October 2016 and close on 8th November 2016.


Name of the Post : Pandit , Granthi , Pandit Gorkha, Maulvi for Ladhakh scouts, Bodh Monk
Total number of Posts: 72

Total Vacancies
Pandit (Gorkha) for Gorkha Regiments
02 (Only for Gorkha candidates)
Maulvi (Shia) for Ladakh Scouts
02 (Only Ladakhi Muslim Shia Candidates)
Bodh Monk (Mahayana)
03 (For only Budhist (Mahayana)candidates)


Age Limit:
Civilian Candidates -> 27 to 34 years as on 01 October 2017 (i.e. Candidates born between 01 Oct 1983 to 30 Sep 1990 (Both dates inclusive)).
Serving Combatants on Remusteration -> 25 to 34 years as on 01 October 2017 (i.e. Candidates born between 01 Oct 1983 to 30 Sep 1992 (Both dates inclusive)).

Pay, Allowances and Perks: The JCO (RT) will be placed at the minimum pay scale of ₹ 9300-34800. in addition they will be entitled to DA, free accommodation, entitled ration for self, uniform, free medical and leave travel concession for self, family/and dependents, canteen facilities and other allowances as admissible to the regular Army.

Educational Qualifications: 

The minimum educational qualification for appointment to Junior Commissioned Officers (Religious Teacher) will be Graduate in any discipline from a recognized university. In addition to this they must also possess following qualification according to the religious denomination of the individual :-

Pandit -> Hindu candidates with Madhyama in Sanskrit or Bhushan in Hindi or equivalent standard in the regional language concerned (OR) Those who have passed BA with Sanskrit / Hindi as one of the elective (Main) subjects but have not done Madhyama in Sanskrit or Bhushan in Hindi.

Granthi -> Sikh Candidates with Vidwan in Punjabi or equivalent standard in the regional language concerned (OR) Those who have passed BA with Punjabi as one of the elective (main) subjects but have not done Vidwan in Punjabi.

Pandit (Gorkha) for Gorkha Regiment -> Hindu (Gorkha) candidates with Madhyama in Sanskrit (OR) Bhushan in Hindi or equivalent standard in the Nepali Language (OR) Those who have passed BA with Sanskrit / Hindi as one of the elective (Main) subjects but have not done Madhyama in Sanskrit or Bhushan in Hindi.

Maulvi (Shia) for Ladakh Scouts -> Muslim Shia ladakh personnel candidates with Maulvi Alim in Arabic, Adib Alim in Urdu or equivalent standard in the regional language concerned (OR) Those who have passed BA with Arabic/Urdu as one of the elective (Main) subject but who have not done Maulvi Alim in Arabic/ Adib Alim in Urdu.

Bodh Monk -> Budhist (Mahayana) candidates who have been ordained Monk/Budhist Priest, by the Appropriate Authority. The term Appropriate Authority will mean Head Priest of the Monastery where the person has been initiated into priesthood. The head priest should be in possession of Geshe (Ph.D) of Khanpa or Lopon or Rabjam with proper certificate from Monastery.

Medical Standards:

Minimum Standard
Height (Cms)
160 (157 for Pandit Gorkha, Bodh Monk & Maulvi Shia
Chest (Cms)
Weight (Kg)
50 (48 for Pandit Gorkha, Bodh Monk & Maulvi Shia)
Physical Fitness Test
Candidate should be able to run 1600 Meter in 08 Minutes
(a) A candidate should have robust physique and mental health, chest should be well developed having minimum 5 cm expansion, should have normal hearing with each ear, should have sufficient number of natural teeth, i.e. 14 dental points with healthy gums. Should not have diseases like deformity of bones, hydrocele, varicose veins or piles.
(b) Candidates may contact nearest recruiting office / zones of the advertisement for existing rules on acceptable medical standards.

Selection Process: 

Written Examination and Interview. The Screened candidates will be put through written examination which will be conducted on 26th February 2017 and will comprise of two papers:-

(a)  PAPER-1 (Marks - 100) -> Common to candidates of all Religious denominations. Only a qualifying exam and marks not counted while preparation of merit list for appearing in the interview or final selection. Pass marks 40%.
(b) PAPER- II (Marks - 100) -> Specific to particular religious denominations to which the candidate belongs. Candidates to secure minimum 40% marks to be eligible for Interview

How to Apply:
Eligible candidates are required to Apply online. The Online Registration open from 10/10/2016 at 10:00 Hours and close on 08/11/2016 up to 17:00 Hours.



PGI Recruitment Oct 2016 - Various Faculty Posts- Last Date 4th Nov,2016

PGI Recruitment Oct 2016 - Various Faculty Posts- Last Date 4th Nov,2016PGIMER Chandigarh has invited ORA online recruitment application form for the various
recruitment. Interested candidates can apply online from 13/10/2016 to 04/11/2016.


Name of the Posts:

  1. Professor :  31 posts in various disciplines / subjects 
  2. Additional Professor :  01 post  
  3. Associate Professor :  02 posts in various disciplines / subjects 
  4. Assistant Professor :  44 posts in various disciplines / subjects   including Dental and Non-Medical disciplines

Application Fee :
Rs. 1000/- (Rs.500/- for SC/ST)  to be deposited in State Bank of India (SBI) through payment challan. 

How to Apply : 
Apply online from 13/10/2016 to 04/11/2016 at PGIMER website only.  Hard Copy of the system generated application should be send to the O/o Assistant Administrative Officer, Recruitment Cell, PGIMER, Sector-12, Chandigarh on or before 07/11/2016.

Tuesday, 4 October 2016

Syndicate Bank Recruitment of 37 Temporary Attender-Last Date 22 Oct,2016

Syndicate Bank has invited applications for the recruitment of 37 posts of Temporary Attender in the branches/ offices of the Visakhapatnam, East Godavari, Vizianagaram and Srikakulam districts.Interested candidates can apply before 22nd October,2016.

Name of Organisation : Syndicate Bank
Job Location : Visakhapatnam, East Godavari, Vizianagaram and Srikakulam
Name of the Posts : Temporary Attender
Number of Posts : 37 Posts

Eligibility Criteria

Age Limit : The age limit of candidates who applying for the Syndicate Bank Temporary Attender posts should be between 18 to 26 years as on 01.04.2016

Age Relaxation : The Relaxation of upper age limit will be of 05 years for SC/ ST Candidates, 03 years for OBC (NCL) Candidates and 10 years for PWD Candidates.

Educational Qualification:
Candidates must have passed class 10th standard and candidates should not have passed intermediate or 12th or 10+2 Examination.

Selection Process:

The selection of Applicants will be made on the basis of Written Test to be conducted by respective Regional Office (district wise).

How to Apply:
Interested candidates who fulfill all eligibility criteria are required to apply in prescribed format and send the applications along with photocopy of relevant documents to The Assistant General Manager, Syndicate Bank, Regional Office, Personnel Cell, Pawan Commercial complex, Daba Gardens Main Road, 2nd floor, Visakhapatnam 530020 on or before 22.10.2016.

Before filling application, you must read all instruction carefully as mentioned in the notification.

Important Dates:
Last date for receipt of application : 22.10.2016

Sunday, 2 October 2016

Latest Current Affairs Update 1st Oct,2016 - Objective Type

1. Which country recently postponed 19th SAARC Summit to be held in November.
A. Sri Lanka
B. India
C. Pakistan
D. Bangladesh
C. Pakistan
Pakistan has officially postponed the 19th SAARC Summit to be held in November in Islamabad. Pakistan’s decision to postpone the SAARC meet has come in the wake of five South Asian countries, including India, expressing their inability to participate in the summit. India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka had already pulled out of the SAARC summit indirectly blaming Pakistan for creating an environment which is not right for the successful holding of the meet.

2. Which Indian International Airport achieved carbon neutral status?
A. Delhi Airport
B. Mumbai Airport
C. Chennai Airport
D. Kolkata Airport
A. Delhi Airport
The Delhi International Airport Limited announced that the Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA) has become the first airport in the Asia-Pacific region to achieve carbon neutral status. The announcement on the carbon neutral status was made by Airports Council International (ACI) during the Airport Carbon Accreditation certificate presentation ceremony held in Montreal, Canada

3. Which company announced to setup data center in India by 2017.
A. Microsoft
B. Alibaba
C. Google
D. Amazon
C. Google
Google will set up its first India data centre in Mumbai by 2017, hoping to take on global incumbents such as Microsoft and Amazon, who have a presence in the country, and allow local customers to host their applications on the internet. Google controls a majority market share in India in search, email and on smartphones through is Android operating system.

4. Which private sector Bank has acquired BSS Microfinance?
A. Axis Bank
B. Kotak Mahindra Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. Yes Bank
B. Kotak Mahindra Bank
Kotak Mahindra Bank, the country’s fourth largest private sector lender, has acquired BSS Microfinance in an all-cash deal for Rs 139.2 crore. The bank said with this, it has entered the microfinance space that has been growing at a rapid pace. This acquisition will allow Kotak to tap the lower end of the customer base and will also help the bank in meeting the priority sector lending (PSL) targets, as BSS’ loans book qualifies for PSL.

5. Who is appointed as the new head of Nehru Memorial Museum and Library?
A. Mahesh Rangarajan
B. Neeraj chopra
C. Sudheer Chaturvedi
D. Shakti Sinha
D. Shakti Sinha
Retired IAS officer Shakti Sinha was appointed as the Director of Nehru Memorial Museum and Library (NMML). His appointment was approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC). Sinha, who served in the Prime Minister’s Office during Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s tenure, was also Director in India Foundation, a think tank aligned to the RSS.

6. Who is appointed as new chief coach of Indian TT team?
A. Costanini
B. Kamlesh Mehta
C. Dhanraj Choudhary
D. None of these
A. Costanini
The Table Tennis Federation of India (TTFI) re-appointed Italian Massimo Costantini as the national team chief coach for a two-year period. “All the players know him well and have a very good understanding with him. His earlier service was satisfactory” said Dhanraj Choudhary, secretary general of TTFI. He will take charge on Ctober1. His tenure will be up to September 30, 2018.

7. India beat which team to lift U-18 Asia Cup hockey?
A. Pakistan
B. Bangladesh
C. Indonesia
D. Sri Lanka
B. Bangladesh
The Indian men’s hockey team lifted the 4th U-18 Asia Cup after defeating hosts Bangladesh 5-4 in a pulsating summit clash in Dhaka. The young Indians held their nerves in the dying moments of the nail-biting finale as they exacted revenge for a 4-5 loss to the hosts in the tournament opener. This is the second time that India has lifted the prestigious trophy after winning it in 2001.

8. Rank of India in  2016-17 Global Competitiveness Index .
A. 39
B. 15
C. 98
D. 133
A. 39
India has been ranked 39th among the 138 countries in the 2016-17 Global Competitiveness Index. The index was topped by Switzerland followed by Singapore , United States , Netherlands and Germany .

9. World Maritime day was observed on
A. 26th Sep
B. 29th Sep
C. 30th Sep
D. 1st Oct
B. 29th Sep
World Maritime Day was observed across the world on 29 September. The theme of the day is shipping: indispensable to the world.The day is observed to raise awareness of the relevance of the role of International Maritime Organization as the global regulatory body for international shipping.

10.  An Acute illness “ Scrub Typhus “ is caused by
A. Bacteria
B. Parasite
C. Virus
D. Water
A. Bacteria
a rickettsial disease transmitted to humans by mites and found in parts of eastern Asia.

Sunday, 25 September 2016

MCQs on Vitamins and Minerals for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. Thiamine is vitamin
(a) B1
(b) B2
(c) B6
(d) B12

2. The iron stored in intestinal mucosal cells is complexed to
(a) Ferritin
(b) Intrinsic factor
(c) Oprelvekin
(d) Transcobalamin II
(e) Transferrin

3. Which of the following is most likely to be required by a 5-year-old boy with chronic renal in sufficiency?
(a) Erythropoietin
(b) G-CSF
(c) Interleukin - 11
(d) Stem cell factor
(e) Thrombopoietin

4. In adults, approximately ______ mg of thiamine per day is completely degraded by the tissue
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.1
(c) 1
(d) 10

5. The drug of choice for the management of osteoporosis caused by high-dose use of glucocorticoids is
(a) Alendronate
(b) Calcitonin
(c) Mestranol
(d) Oxandrolone
(e) Vitamin D

6. Which of the following drugs is correctly associated with its clinical application?
(a) Erythropoietin : Macrocytic anemia
(b) Filgrastim : Thrombocytopenia due to myelocytic leukemia
(c) Iron dextran : Severe macrocytic anemia
(d) Ferrous sulfate : Microcytic anemia of pregnancy
(e) Folic acid : Hemochromatosis

7. Conversion of methionine to cysteine depends on vitamin
(a) B1
(b) B2
(c) B6
(d) B12

8. Avidin, a protein found in egg white is an antagonist of
(a) Biotin
(b) Pantothenic acid
(c) Choline
(d) Pyridoxal

9. All of the following are important functions of magnesium (Mg) except
(a) Nerve conduction
(b) Phospholipid synthesis
(c) Muscle contractility
(d) Carbohydrate, fat, and electrolyte metabolism

10. Factors likely to cause an increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level include
(a) Intramuscular (IM)injection of diazepam(Valium)
(b) Severe liver disease
(c) Chronic kidney disease

11. Physiologically carnitine plays following role
(a) Important for oxidation of fatty acids
(b) Decreases aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates
(c) Decreases rate of oxidative phosphorylation
(d) All of the above

12. Patients receiving iron therapy should be warned about
(a) Dizziness
(b) Ringing in the ears
(c) Danger of sunlight
(d) Blackening of the stool
(e) Paresthesia

13. Therapeutically vitamin B1 has been employed most successfully in the treatment of
(a) Microcytic anemia
(b) Pellagra
(c) Scurvy
(d) Beriberi
(e) Macrocytic anemia

14. Magnesium ion is necessary in
(a) Stimulating enzyme systems
(b) Muscular contraction
(c) Nerve conduction
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

15. The following derivatives of retinal shows the greatest biological potency than others
(a) 9-Cis-retinoic acid
(b) All-trans-retinoic acid
(c) All-trans-retinol
(d) 11-Cis-retinal

16. The drug used for controlling tetany is
(a) Intravenous diazepam
(b) Intramuscular vitamin D
(c) Intravenous calcium gluconate
(d) Intravenous calcitonin

17. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering
(a) Antacids
(b) Tetracyclines
(c) Phosphates
(d) Ascorbic acid

18. The gut controls the entry of ingested iron in the body of
(a) Regulating the availability of apoferritin which acts as the carrier of iron across the mucosal cell
(b) Regulating the turnover of apoferritin-ferritin interconversion in the mucosal cell
(c) Complexing excess iron to form ferritin which remains stored in the mucosal cell and is shed off
(d) Regulating the number of transferring receptors on the mucosal cell

19. The percentage of elemental iron hydrated ferrous sulfate is
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 33%

20. In isolated fibroblast or epithelial cells, retinoids enhance the synthesis of following protein
(a) Fibronectin
(b) Collagenase
(c) Certain species of keratin
(d) All of the above

21. The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is
(a) Epigastric pain and bowel upset
(b) Black stools
(c) Staining of teeth
(d) Metallic taste

22. Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that
(a) It cannot be injected i.v.
(b) It is not excreted in urine
(c) It is not bound to transferritin in plasma
(d) It produces fewer side effects

23. Which of the following is true about iron therapy ?
(a) Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy
(b) Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia
(c) Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy
(d) Infants on breast feeding do not require medicinal iron

24. Concentrations of retinal in plasma in excess of _____ µg/dl usually are diagnostic of hypervitaminosis A
(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200

25. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in
(a) Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency
(b) Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency
(c) Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency
(d) Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid deficiency

26. The daily dietary requirement of Vitamin B12 by an adult is
(a) 1–3 µg
(b) 50–100 µg
(c) 0.1–0.5 µg
(d) 1–3 µg

27. Which of the following factor(s) is/are required for the absorption of Vitamin B12 ingested in physiological amounts ?
(a) Gastric acid
(b) Gastric intrinsic factor
(c) Transcobalamine
(d) Both (a) and (b)

28. Hydroxocobalamine differs from cyanocobalamine in that
(a) It is more protein bound and better retained
(b) It is beneficial in tobacco amblyopia
(c) It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of Vit B12 deficiencey
(d) Both (a) and (b)

29. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of
(a) Iron
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) All of the above

30. Vitamin B12 is a required co-factor for the following reaction
(a) Conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl- CoA
(b) Conversion of 5-CH3-H4-folate to H4-folate
(c) Conversion of homocysteine to methionine
(d) All of the above

31. Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients
(a) Being treated with heparin
(b) Being treated with streptokinase
(c) Of obstructive jaundice
(d) Of peptic ulcer

32. Menadione (Vitamin K3)
(a) Can cause hemolysis in patients with G-6-PD deficiency
(b) Is given in large doses in patients with severe liver disease
(c) Is useful to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
(d) Is the preparation of choice to antagonize the effect of warfarin overdose

33. Vitamin K promotes the hepatic biosynthesis of following blood clotting factor
(a) Factor I
(b) Factor II
(c) Factor VIII
(d) All of the above

34. folinic acid is principally used
(a) In pernicious anaemia
(b) In megaloblastic anaemia secondary to Vitamin B12
(c) Along with methotrexate therapy
(d) In treatment of folic acid deficiency

35. Penicillamine
(a) Is effective orally
(b) Can cause anaphylactic reactions in patients allergic to penicillin
(c) Is safe in pregnancy
(d) Is not effective in lead poisoning

36. Succimer
(a) Can significantly mobilize essential metals
(b) Produces less toxicity than Dimercaprol
(c) Is ineffective orally
(d) Is contraindicated in children

MCQs on Structure of DNA and RNA for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular oxygen, what is it?
a. Cyt b
b. Cyt c
c. Cyt d
d. Cyt o

2. The genetic material in HIV is
a. ds DNA
b. ss DNA
c. s RNA
d. None of these

3. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA?
a. Ethidium bromide
b. Nitrosogeranidine
c. Acridine orange
d. None of above

4. Poly A tail is frequently found in
a. Histone in RNA
b. Bacterial RNA
c. eukaryotic RNA

5. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus?
a. SV 40
b. T4 phage
c. Tobacco mosaic virus
d. Adeno virus

6. Genomic DNA is extracted, broken into fragments of reasonable size by a restriction endonuclease and then inserted into a cloning vector to generate chimeric vectors. The cloned fragments are called
a. Clones
b. Genomic library
c. mRNA
d. None of these

7. Transgenic animals are produced when GH gene fused with
a. MT gene
b. GH
c. GRF
d. FIX

8. In which medium the hydridoma cells grow selectively?
a. Polyethylene glycol
b. Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine
c. Hypoxathing-guaning phosphoribosyl transferase
d. Both b and c

9. The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineering are
a. Exonuclease and ligase
b. Restriction endonuclease and polymerase
c. Ligase and polymerase
d. Restriction endonuclease and ligase

10. A successful hybridoma was produced by fusing
a. Plasma cells and plasmids
b. Plasma cells and myeloma cells
c. Myeloma cells and plasmids
d. Plasma cells and bacterial cells

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MCQs on Sterilization, Culture Media and Techniques for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. The medium used in membrane filter technique was
a. EMB agar
b. EMR-Vp medium
c. Lactose broth
d. Endo agar

2. Lysol is a
a. Sterilent
b. Disinfectant
c. Antiseptic
d. Antifungal agent

3. Which of the following is a neutral stain?
a. Picric acid
b. Gmiemsa
c. Neutral red
d. Malachite green

4. Peptone water medium is an example for
a. Synthetic medium
b. Semisynthetic medium
c. Differential medium
d. None of these

5. The method in which the cells are frozen dehydrated is called
a. Pasteurization
b. Dessication
c. Disinfection
d. Lypophilization

6. The technique used to avoid all microorganisms is accomplished by
a. Sterlization
b. Disinfection
c. Surgical sterilization
d. Disinfection Sterilization

7. Thermal death time is
a. Time required to kill all cells at a given temperature
b. Temperature that kills all cells in a given time
c. Time and temperature needed to kill all cells
d. All of the above

8. A culture medium the exact composition of which is not known was called as
a. Simple
b. Complex
c. Defined
d. Natural

9. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of
a. Tetani toxin
b. Cholera toxin
c. Diophtheria toxin
d. Toxoid

10. Temperature required for pasteurization is
a. Above 150oC
b. Below 100oC
c. 110oC
d. None of these

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MCQs on Skin for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1.healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and?
A.  color
B.  pallor
C.  dryness
D.  dullness
Ans: A

2.what is the technical name for the study, including its structure, functions and treatment?
A.  etiology
B.  anatomy
C.  pathology
D.  dermatology
Ans: D

3.the outermost layer of the skin is called the ?
A.  corium
B.  dermis
C.  adipose
D.  epidermis
Ans: D

4.which of the following layers of skin does not contain and blood vessels?
A.  cutis
B.  dermis
C.  corium
D.  epidermis
Ans: D

5.what is another name for the stratum germinativum?
A.  epidermis
B.  dermal layer
C.  stratum lucidum
D.  basal layer or stratum basale
Ans: D

6.Where does mitosis (cell division) or replacment of the skin take place?
A.  stratum lucidum
B.  stratum corneum
C.  stratum granulosm
D.  statum greminativum
Ans: D

7.the stratum germinativm and what other layer of skin contain melanin?
A.  dermis
B.  subcutaneous
C.  stratum corneum
D.  stratum spinosum
Ans: D

8.on the human body, the thickest skin is located on the:
A.  thighs
B.  buttocks
C.  abdomen
D.  palms and soles
Ans: D

9.The layer of the epidermis that sheds keratin cells that are constantly replaced is the?
A.  stratum lucidum
B.  stratum corneum
C.  stratum mucosum
D.  stratum granlosum
Ans: B

10.what quality is notable about the stratum corneum?
A.  it is the thinnest layer of skin
B.  it is the weakest layer of skin
C.  it is the toughest layer of skin
D.  it is lowermost layer of skin
Ans: C

11.the stratum corneum is composed of ?
A.  melanin
B.  granules
C.  keratin cells
D.  squamous cells
Ans: C

12.which layer is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis?
A.  dermis
B.  stratum corneum
C.  stratum mucosum
D.  stratum granulosum
Ans: B

13.where are the blood vessels found that supply the skin?
A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum lucidum
D.  stratum corneum
Ans: A

14.sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands sensory nerve endings, blood vessels, arrector pili muscles and a major  portion of each hair follicle are found in the ?
A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum corneum
D.  startum spinosum
Ans: A

15.what part of the skin is often referred to as "true skin"

A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum corneum
D.  stratum spinosum
Ans: A

16.which layer of the skin produces collgen protein and elastin fibers to help give the skin its elasicity and pliability?
A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum lucidum
D.  stratum graninativum
Ans: A

17.the deterioration of collagen and elastiin fibers during fibers during the aging process causes?
A.  rosacea
B.  freckles
C.  macules
D.  wrinkles
Ans: D

18.what is major function of the sudoriferous gland?
A.  gives skin texture
B.  gives skin a healthy color
C.  protects the skin's elasticity
D.  helps to regulate body temperature
Ans: D

19.sweat or perspitation is secreted by what gland?
A.  adrenal
B.  endocrine
C.  sebaceous
D.  sudoriferous
Ans: D

20.the small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called ?
A.  ducts
B.  pores
C.  glands
D.  follicles
Ans: B

21.the sudoriferous (sweat) glands are referred to as:
A.  nervous system
B.  muscular system
C.  endocrine system
D.  circulatory system
Ans: A

22.sudoriferous and sebaceous glands are referred to as ?
A.  pores
B.  follicles
C.  duct glands
D.  ductless glands
Ans: C

23.control and regilation of body temperature by the sudoriferous glands help maintan the body temperture at?
A.  78.0 f or 29.4 c
B.  94.0 f or 87.9 c
C.  88.6 f or 37 c
D.  98.6 f or 37 c
Ans: D

24.the greatest concentration of sudorferous glands is found on the?
A.  arms
B.  eyelids
C.  midsection of the body
D.  palms, soles,scalp and forehead and underarms
Ans: D

25.the sebaceous gland produces:
A.  melanin
B.  dandruff
C.  sebum (oil.
D.  perspiration
Ans: C

26. on what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands?
A.  the face
B.  in the groin area
C.  on the arms and legs
D.  on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
Ans: D

27.what is the function of sebum?
A.  carry melanin
B.  produce sweat
C.  give skin elasticity
D.  keep skin from drying and chapping
Ans: D

28.the papillary canal take oil (sebum) to the?
A.  nerve
B.  keratin
C.  blood vessels
D.  surface of the skin
Ans: D

29.where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous layer located ?
A.  above the cuticle
B.  below the dermis
C.  above the epidermis
D.  below the adipose tissue
Ans: B

30.the subcutaneous tissue of skin is made up of mostly?
A.  keratin
B.  muscle
C.  melanin
D.  fatty cells
Ans: D

31.what layer of the skin contains large blood vessels that transport nouishment to skin and nerve ?
A.  epidermis
B.  melanin layer
C.  spinum spinosum
D.  subcutaneous layer
Ans: D

32.what factor would cause a reaction in sensory nerve fibers?
A.  fear
B.  light
C.  sound
D.  cold temperatures
Ans: D

33.what tans the skin to help protect it from harmful ultraviolet rays?
A.  sebum
B.  melanin
C.  the acid mantle
D.  the subcutaneous layer
Ans: B

34.light skin and dark skin differ in the ?
A.  number of melanocytes the contain
B.  rate and amount of melanin produced
C.  number of nerve endings the contain
D.  number of epidermal cells they contain
Ans: B

35.almost 90% of the skin's wrinkles are caused by ?
A.  exposure to the sun
B.  exposure to pollutants
C.  excessive use of astringents
D.  excessive exposure to fluorescent lights
Ans: A

36.on the human body, the thinnest skin is located on the ?
A.  chin
B.  eyelids
C.  soles of the feet
D.  skull just behind the ears
Ans: B

37.healthy skin's pH level of 4.5 to 5.5 is?
A.  highly acidic
B.  acid-balanced
C.  highly alkaline
D.  slightly alkaline
Ans: B should a salon profession react if the client has a skin disease?
A.  prescribe proper treatment
B.  suggest home remedies to client
C.  perform the service while wearing gloves
D.  refer client to a physician or dermatologist
Ans: D

39.chronic is the term used to identify condition that are ?
A.  visible
B.  brief and severe
C.  frequent and habitual
D.  influenced by weather
Ans: C

40.the term used to identify conditions that are brief and severe is ?
A.  acute
B.  chronic
C.  objective
D.  subjective
Ans: A

41.a disease that spreads by personal contact is known as?
A.  systemic
B.  congenital
C.  contagious
D.  occupational
Ans: C

42.a disease influenced by weather is referred to as?
A.  serial
B.  rational
C.  seasonal
D.  inflammable
Ans: C

43.what is the technical name for the study of the cause of diseases?
A.  etiology
B.  anatomy
C.  pathology
D.  dermatology
Ans: A

44.what is the technical term for the study of deseases?
A.  eitology
B.  anatomy
C.  pathology
D.  dermatology
Ans: C

45.indicating a medical opinion of a future condition of illness is known as a(an.?
A.  analysis
B.  diagnosis
C.  prognosis
D.  recognition
Ans: c alleegic reaction to cosmetics or chemicals which salon professionals may be susceptible to is called?
A.  papules
B.  chloasma
C.  lenigines
D.  sermatitis venenata
Ans: D example of a subjective symptom would be?
A.  itching
B.  swelling
C.  redness
D.  discharge
Ans: A

48.abnormal changes in the structure of organs or tissues are called primary and secondary?
A.  wheal
B.  fissure
C.  lesions
D.  infection
Ans: C

49.a freckle is an example of which type of primary skin lesion?
A.  lentigo
B.  papule
C.  macule
D.  leukoderma
Ans: C

50.a papule is an example of a ?
A.  tertiary lesion
B.  primary skin lesion
C.  subjective symptom
D.  secondary skin lesion
Ans: B

51.vesicles can be produced by which of the following conditions?
A.  callus
B.  verrucas
C.  poison ivy
D.  dry, scaly skin
Ans: C

52.herpes simplex is the technical term for?
A.  acne
B.  eczema
C.  psoriasis
D.  fever blisters
Ans: D

53.a solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable and may be elevated or deep iscalled a ?
A.  crust
B.  callus
C.  tumor
D.  wheal
Ans: C

54.a cyst is defined by which of the following description?
A.  oozing sore
B.  wheal lesions
C.  crack in the skin
D.  abnormal membranous sac
Ans: D

55.a secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvert scales is called?
A.  acne
B.  eczema
C.  psoriasis
D.  herpes simplex
Ans: C

56.which of the following skin lesions often occurs when skin loses its flesibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water, etc and cracks in the skin appear?
A.  stain
B.  tumor
C.  fissure
D.  papule
Ans: C

57.the lesion found following the healing of an injury is called a(n.?
A.  vitiligo
B.  fissure
C.  scar
D.  excoriation
Ans: C

58.which of the following terms is another name for a keratoma?
A.  a wart
B.  a callus
C.  a tumor
D.  a birthmark
Ans: B

59.what may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction over a long period of time?
A.  it may wear thin
B.  it may become shiny
C.  it may scale and flake
D.  it may become callused
Ans: D

60.verruca is a name given to a variety of?
A.  warts
B.  ulcers
C.  fissures
D.  skin tags
Ans: A

61.melanotic sarcoma is a skin cancer that begins with?
A.  a mole
B.  an ulcer
C.  lentigines
D.  miliaria rubra
Ans: A

62.what is the technical name for liver spots?
A.  rubra
B.  crustacea
C.  chloasma
D.  leukoderma
Ans: C

63.what is another name for a stain in the skin caused by the dilation of the small blood vessels in the skin, also known as a birthmark?
A.  scar
B.  callus
C.  nevus
D.  verruca
Ans: C

64.comedone is the technical name for?
A.  nevus
B.  macule
C.  blackhead
D.  whitehead
Ans: C

65.what is the techical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes?
A.  acne
B.  verruca
C.  leukoderma
D.  melanoderma
Ans: C

66.accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or:
A.  acne
B.  milia
C.  rosacea
D.  comedones
Ans: B

67.acne most often occurs on the ?
A.  legs, hips, and arms
B.  face, back and chest
C.  fingers, toes and soles
D.  ankles, knees and elbow
Ans: B

68.ance can be found in two stages, acne simplex and:
A.  rosacea
B.  asteatosis
C.  acne vulagarsis
D.  deep-seated acne
Ans: C

69.what is the professinal action to take when a client with rosacea requests a facial service with you?
A.  refer clients to another salon
B.  avoid the issue of rosacea
C.  proceed with the service but wear protective gloves
D.  proceed with the service with approval of the client's physician
Ans: D

70.what is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin caused by a decreased production of sebum?
A.  rosacea
B.  steatoma
C.  asteatosis
D.  seborrhea
Ans: C

71.which disorder is caused by excessive secretion of the sebaceous glands?
A.  millia
B.  asteatosis
C.  seborrhea
D.  bromidrosis
Ans: C

72.where does a steatoma most often appear?
A.  on the arms, legs and chest
B.  on the face, feet and hands
C.  on the fingers, feet and toes
D.  on the scalp, neck and back
Ans: D

73.what is the definition of bromidrosis?
A.  excessive sebum
B.  the lack of sebum
C.  the lack of perspiration
D.  foul-smelling perspiration
Ans: D

74.the lack of perspiration caused by fever or disease is called?
A.  anhidrosis
B.  osmidrosis
C.  bromidrosis
D.  hyperhidrosis
Ans: A

75.what is the disorder called that is an overproduction of perspiration caused by excessive heat or general body  weakness?
A.  osmidrosis
B.  anhidrosis
C.  bromidrosis
D.  hyperhidosis
Ans: D

76.which of the following terms does NOT describe a guideline that can indicate skin cancer?
A.  color
B.  border
C.  texture
D.  asymmetry
Ans: C

77.products that work tofurther cleanse the skin and return it to its normal pH include?
A.  oils
B.  massage creams
C.  manual exfoliants
D.  astringents and tonic lotions
Ans: D

78.a term that is used to describe moisturizing is ?
A.  oiling
B.  toning
C.  hydrating
D.  cleansing
Ans: C

79.applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects?
A.  inflame and irrtate muscles
B.  increase secretion
C.  decrease production
D.  soothe and stimulate nerves and muscles
Ans: D

80.effleurage is a massage movement that involves a:
A.  circular movement with no gliding
B.  light tapping or slapping movement
C.  light, gentle stroking or circular movement
D.  light or heavy kneading and rolling of muscles
Ans: C

81.the gentle massage movement  that often begins and ends a massage treatment is ?
A.  vibration
B.  effleurage
C.  petrissage
D.  tapotement
Ans: B

82.the massage manipulation that consists of heavy kneading and rolling of the muscles is called:
A.  friction
B.  vibration
C.  petrissage
D.  tapotement
Ans: C

83.which massage manipulation deeply stimules the muscles, nerves and skin glands?
A.  friction
B.  vibration
C.  petrissage
D.  tapotement
  Ans: C

84.the massage movement that should not be used when the client needs soothing is?
A.  gliding
B.  stroking
C.  effleurage
D.  tapotement
Ans: D

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